| Hello all
I have been wondering why the Germans did not do a deal with Franco, say shortly after the fall of France, to allow for the seizure of Gibraltar.
At first glance, I would have thought during this early part of the war, Gibraltar would have succumbed to a landward invasion and air attack, either by Spanish and/or German forces, with the British being able to do little about it.
I am sure at this stage Franco would not have seen the 'writing on the wall', i.e. that the Nazis were a lost cause and consequently attempt to remain neutral, and he appeared sufficiently comfortable in his position and dealings with Hitler to allow for the despatch of Spanish volunteers to fight in the East.
Moreover, the Spanish did not appear to be unduly reliant upon seaborne trade nor have any significant empire to guard, which might have led the British into enforcing a blockade (and surely the Spanish "volunteers" for the German forces could have provoked this response?). The capture of Gibraltar would surely have elevated his standing at home.
For the Germans the capture of Gibraltar would have effectively closed off the Eastern Med. to the British; and the placing of U-boats there would have enabled them to interdict shipping transiting the African coast, especially troopships taking men to N Africa via The Cape and Suez.
Anyone have any concrete info. on whether this was considered?
Cheers
Richard
__________________ Seeking all things and information about Allied submariners of both world wars |